PhysicsRotational Motion
Q.
The angular speed of a flywheel is increased from 600 rpm to 1200 rpm in 10 s. The number of revolutions completed by the flywheel during this time is :
1
900
2
600
3
150
4
300
PhysicsCurrent Electricity
Q.
A resistor is connected to a battery of 12 V emf and internal resistance 2 Ω. If the current in the circuit is 0·6 A, the terminal voltage of the battery is :
1
10 V
2
1·2 V
3
12 V
4
10·8 V
PhysicsKinetic Theory of Gases
Q.
A flask contains argon and chlorine in the ratio of 2 : 1 by mass. The temperature of the mixture is 27°C. The ratio of root mean square speed of the molecules of the two gases (vArrms/vClrms) is :
(Atomic mass of Ar = 40·0 u, Molecular mass of Cl₂ = 70·0 u)
(Atomic mass of Ar = 40·0 u, Molecular mass of Cl₂ = 70·0 u)
1
√(7)/2
2
7/4
3
7/2
4
2/√(7)
PhysicsDual Nature of Radiation
Q.
Match List I with List II :
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. E = hν | I. de Broglie wavelength |
| B. Diffraction and Interference | II. Particle nature of light |
| C. λ = h/p | III. Wave nature of light |
| D. Compton effect | IV. Energy of photon |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
2
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3
A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
4
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
PhysicsAtoms & Nuclei
Q.
In the first excited state of hydrogen atom, the energy of its electron is − 3·4 eV. The radial distance of the electron from the hydrogen nucleus in this case is approximately :
(Take 1 eV = 1·6 × 10⁻¹⁹ J, e = 1·6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C and 1/4πε₀ = 9 × 10⁹ N m²/C²)
(Take 1 eV = 1·6 × 10⁻¹⁹ J, e = 1·6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C and 1/4πε₀ = 9 × 10⁹ N m²/C²)
1
2·1 × 10⁻⁹ m
2
2·1 × 10⁻¹⁰ m
3
2·1 × 10⁻¹⁰ m
4
2·1 × 10⁻¹¹ m
PhysicsLaws of Motion
Q.
A box of mass 15 kg is kept on the floor of a stationary trolley. The coefficient of static friction between the box and the trolley is 0·12. Keeping the box in stationary state over the trolley, the maximum acceleration with which the trolley can be moved horizontally in m s⁻² is :
(g = 10 m/s²)
(g = 10 m/s²)
1
2·1
2
1·8
3
1·5
4
1·2
PhysicsGravitation
Q.
The amount of work done to raise a mass 'm' from the surface of the Earth to a height equal to the radius of the Earth 'R', will be :
1
2mgR
2
mgR/2
3
mgR
4
mgR/4
PhysicsOscillations & SHM
Q.
The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple pendulum bob is 0·02 joule. The speed of the simple pendulum bob at equilibrium position is approximately :
(Consider mass of the bob = 20 g)
(Consider mass of the bob = 20 g)
1
0·2 m/s
2
1·41 m/s
3
14·1 m/s
4
2·0 m/s
PhysicsWave Optics
Q.
In Young's double slit experiment, using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is λ, is K units. The intensity of light at a point where the path difference is λ/3 will be :
1
K/4
2
K
3
2K
4
K/4
PhysicsWave Optics
Q.
In interference and diffraction, the light energy is redistributed. If it reduces in one region, producing a dark fringe, it increases in another region, producing a bright fringe.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
A is true and B is also true
2
A is false, but B is true
3
A is true, but B is false
4
Both A and B are false
PhysicsWaves
Q.
For a travelling harmonic wave
y(x, t) = 2·0 cos 2π(10t − 0·0080x + 0·35), where x and y are in cm and t in s. The phase difference between oscillatory motion of two points separated by a distance of 0·5 m is :
y(x, t) = 2·0 cos 2π(10t − 0·0080x + 0·35), where x and y are in cm and t in s. The phase difference between oscillatory motion of two points separated by a distance of 0·5 m is :
1
0·08π rad
2
0·8π rad
3
8π rad
4
0·008π rad
PhysicsLaws of Motion
Q.
The magnitude and direction of the acceleration produced in a body of mass 5 kg when two mutually perpendicular forces 8 N and 6 N act on it, are respectively :
1
20 m s⁻²; tan⁻¹(4/3) with 8N force
2
2 m s⁻²; tan⁻¹(3/4) with 6N force
3
2 m s⁻²; tan⁻¹(4/3) with 8N force
4
2 m s⁻²; tan⁻¹(3/4) with 8N force
PhysicsWork Power Energy
Q.
The power of a crane, which lifts a mass of 1000 kg to a height of 20 m in 10 s is : (g = 9·8 m/s²)
1
19·6 W
2
39·2 W
3
19·6 kW
4
39·2 kW
PhysicsMeasurements
Q.
In a vernier callipers, 20 VSD coincide with 16 MSD (each division of length 1 mm). The least count of the vernier callipers is :
1
0·2 mm
2
0·01 cm
3
0·02 cm
4
0·1 mm
PhysicsKinematics
Q.
When a ruler falls vertically, 5 different persons catch it with different reaction times. (g = 9·8 m s⁻²)
1
B > E > A > C > D
2
C > D > A > B > E
3
B > E > A > D > C
4
C > D > A > E > B
PhysicsCurrent Electricity
Q.
A uniform metallic wire having resistance 4 Ω is bent to form a square loop (ABCD). A resistance of 2 Ω is connected between points B and D and a battery of 2 V is connected across points A and C as shown in the figure. Now the value of current (I) is :
1
2 A
2
8 A
3
4·5 A
4
4 A
PhysicsCurrent Electricity
Q.
A room heater is rated 400 W, 220 V. If the supply voltage drops to 200 V, what will be the power consumed (approximately)?
1
200 W
2
400 W
3
331 W
4
121 W
PhysicsMagnetism
Q.
A 100-turn closely wound circular coil of radius 5 cm has a magnetic field of 3·14 × 10⁻³ T at its centre. The current flowing through the coil and the magnitude of the magnetic moment of this coil are, respectively : (Take μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T m/A)
1
2 A, 10 A m²
2
2·5 A, 20 A m²
3
2 A, 4 A m²
4
2·5 A, 2 A m²
PhysicsElectromagnetic Induction
Q.
A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 3 cm with a small cut, is moving out of a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0·3 T directed normal to the plane of the loop. The velocity of the loop is 2 cm s⁻¹, in a direction normal to the shorter side of the loop. The emf developed across the cut, if the velocity of the loop is in the direction normal to the shorter side of the loop, will be :
1
4·8 × 10⁻⁴ volt
2
1·2 × 10⁻⁴ volt
3
1·3 × 10⁻⁴ volt
4
1·8 × 10⁻⁴ volt
PhysicsThermodynamics
Q.
An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a rate of 100 W. If the system performs work at a rate of 75 J/s, then the rate at which internal energy increases will be :
1
75 W
2
100 W
3
25 W
4
125 W
PhysicsAtoms & Nuclei
Q.
Four statements are given (A is mass number) :
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
A and C are true, but B and D are false
2
B and C are true, but A and D are false
3
A and D are true, but B and C are false
4
B and D are true, but A and C are false
PhysicsAtoms & Nuclei
Q.
An unknown nucleus has a nuclear density of 2·29 × 10¹⁷ kg/m³ and mass of 19·926 × 10⁻²⁷ kg. Its mass number A is approximately : (Take R₀ = 1·2 × 10⁻¹⁵ m, 4π = 12·56)
1
12
2
20
3
16
4
19
PhysicsOscillations
Q.
Savitha, a XI standard student, while conducting an experiment to determine the effective length of a simple pendulum L, notes down the data of time taken to complete 30 oscillations as 60 s and hence calculates the length of the simple pendulum as : (Take π² = 9·8, and g = 9·8 m/s²)
1
0·75 m
2
1·5 m
3
2 m
4
1 m
PhysicsCurrent Electricity
Q.
A galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω gives full scale deflection for a current of 1 mA. It is converted into an ammeter of range 0 – 10 A. The shunt required is :
1
0·01 Ω
2
0·10 Ω
3
1·0 Ω
4
0·001 Ω
PhysicsAC Circuits
Q.
The peak value of an alternating current is 5 A and frequency is 60 Hz. How long will the current, starting from zero, take to reach the peak value?
1
1/120 s
2
1/60 s
3
1/30 s
4
1/240 s
PhysicsSemiconductors
Q.
Two statements are given below :
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
Both Statements A and B are true
2
Statement A is true, but Statement B is false
3
Both Statements A and B are false
4
Statement A is false, but Statement B is true
PhysicsElectrostatics
Q.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
A, B and D only
2
A, C and E only
3
A, C and D only
4
C, D and E only
PhysicsDual Nature of Radiation
Q.
For a metal of work function 6·6 eV, which of the following wavelengths of incident radiation does not give rise to the photoelectric effect? (Take Planck's constant h = 6·6 × 10⁻³⁴ J s, c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s)
1
100 nm
2
150 nm
3
200 nm
4
50 nm
PhysicsProperties of Fluids
Q.
A submarine can withstand a pressure of 100 atmosphere. What is the maximum depth below the surface of water it can go? (density of water = 1000 kg/m³, g = 9·8 m/s², 1 atm = 10⁵ Pa)
1
990 m
2
9800 m
3
100 m
4
1000 m
PhysicsEM Waves
Q.
Match List I with List II:
1
A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
2
A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
3
A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III
4
A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III
ChemistryAmines
Q.
Select the reagents that reduce nitriles to primary amines :
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
B, D and E only
2
A, C and D only
3
A, D and E only
4
A, B and C only
Chemistryd-block Elements
Q.
Match List I (Catalyst) with List II (Process/Reaction):
1
A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV
2
A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
3
A–I, B–III, C–IV, D–II
4
A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
ChemistryThermodynamics
Q.
For the reaction 2A(g) + B(g) → 2D(g), ΔU° = −10.5 kJ and ΔS° = −44.1 J K⁻¹. Calculate ΔG° for the reaction at 298 K. (R = 8.314 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)
1
−0.765 kJ mol⁻¹
2
+0.164 kJ mol⁻¹
3
−3.51 kJ mol⁻¹
4
+3.51 kJ mol⁻¹
ChemistryStructure of Atom
Q.
Match List I (quantum numbers n, l, mₗ) with List II (orbital):
1
A–IV, B–I, C–III, D–II
2
A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
3
A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
4
A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
ChemistryIonic Equilibrium
Q.
The equilibrium: BiO(OH)(s) ⇌ BiO⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq) has K = 4 × 10⁻¹⁰. What will be the pH of the saturated solution?
1
pH = 5
2
pH = 9
3
pH = 7
4
pH = 4
ChemistryBiomolecules
Q.
Which of the following statements are correct about the secondary structure of DNA?
1
A and B only
2
A, C and D only
3
B, C and D only
4
All A, B, C and D
ChemistryIsomerism
Q.
Which of the following pairs of compounds represent metamers?
1
Pentan-1-ol and pentan-2-ol
2
Diethyl ether and methyl propyl ether
3
Propanal and propanone
4
1-butanol and diethyl ether
ChemistrySurface Chemistry
Q.
Which of the following statements about colloidal solutions are correct?
1
A and B only
2
A, B and C only
3
A and C only
4
A, C and D only
ChemistryElectrochemistry
Q.
Which of the following statements about electrochemical cells are correct?
1
A, C and D only
2
B, C and D only
3
A and C only
4
All A, B, C and D
ChemistryCoordination Compounds
Q.
Match List I (Complex) with List II (Number of unpaired electrons):
1
A–I, B–III, C–II, D–I
2
A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
3
A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
4
A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
ChemistryOrganic Nomenclature
Q.
Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name for CH₃CH₂CH(OH)CH₂CH₃?
1
Pentan-1-ol
2
3-methylbutan-2-ol
3
Pentan-3-ol
4
2-ethylpropan-1-ol
Chemistryp-Block Elements
Q.
Which of the following statements about halogens are correct?
1
A and B only
2
A, C and D only
3
B and C only
4
A, B, C and D
ChemistryPolymers
Q.
Which of the following is an addition polymer?
1
Nylon-6,6
2
Terylene (Dacron)
3
Natural rubber
4
Bakelite
Chemistrys-Block Elements
Q.
Which of the following statements about alkali metals are correct?
1
A and C only
2
A, B and D only
3
B, C and D only
4
All A, B, C and D
BiologyCell Biology
Q.
Which of the following cell organelles is called the powerhouse of the cell?
1
Nucleus
2
Ribosome
3
Mitochondria
4
Golgi apparatus
BiologyEvolution
Q.
Which of the following is the correct match of a vestigial organ with the organism?
1
Nictitating membrane — Frog
2
Coccyx — Human
3
Ear muscles — Dog
4
Hind limb bones — Frog
BiologyPlant Anatomy
Q.
Which of the following meristems is responsible for the secondary growth in plants?
1
Apical meristem
2
Vascular cambium
3
Intercalary meristem
4
Protoderm
BiologyPlant Physiology
Q.
Which of the following plant hormones promotes cell elongation and is also involved in phototropism and apical dominance?
1
Auxin (IAA)
2
Gibberellin
3
Cytokinin
4
Abscisic acid
BiologyEndocrinology
Q.
Which of the following is NOT a function of insulin?
1
Lowers blood glucose level
2
Promotes glycogen synthesis in liver
3
Promotes glycogenolysis
4
Promotes uptake of glucose by cells
BiologyNeural Control
Q.
Which part of the brain is responsible for controlling body temperature, hunger, thirst and circadian rhythms?
1
Cerebrum
2
Cerebellum
3
Hypothalamus
4
Medulla oblongata
BiologyLocomotion & Movement
Q.
Which of the following types of muscle is both involuntary and striated?
1
Skeletal muscle
2
Cardiac muscle
3
Smooth muscle
4
Visceral muscle
BiologyBody Fluids & Circulation
Q.
Which blood group is called the universal donor?
1
AB positive
2
O negative
3
O positive
4
AB negative
BiologyHuman Reproduction
Q.
In humans, fertilisation normally takes place in the:
1
Ovary
2
Fallopian tube (ampulla)
3
Uterus
4
Cervix
BiologyExcretory Products
Q.
The structural and functional unit of the kidney is:
1
Glomerulus
2
Nephron
3
Loop of Henle
4
Bowman's capsule
BiologyHuman Health & Disease
Q.
Which of the following is an example of innate (non-specific) immunity?
1
Skin acting as a physical barrier
2
Production of antibodies
3
Memory T cells
4
Vaccination
BiologyHuman Health & Disease
Q.
Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan?
1
Malaria
2
Dengue
3
Typhoid
4
Pneumonia (bacterial)
BiologyPhotosynthesis
Q.
Which of the following is a C4 plant?
1
Wheat
2
Sugarcane
3
Pea
4
Sunflower
BiologyRespiration
Q.
Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in which part of the mitochondria?
1
Outer mitochondrial membrane
2
Inner mitochondrial membrane (cristae)
3
Mitochondrial matrix
4
Intermembrane space
BiologyMolecular Biology
Q.
The Meselson-Stahl experiment proved that DNA replication is:
1
Conservative
2
Semi-conservative
3
Dispersive
4
Random
BiologyGenetics
Q.
In Mendel's dihybrid cross, the phenotypic ratio in F2 generation is:
1
3 : 1
2
9 : 3 : 3 : 1
3
1 : 2 : 1
4
1 : 1 : 1 : 1
BiologyPlant Physiology
Q.
Which of the following cells are responsible for the opening and closing of stomata in plants?
1
Guard cells
2
Companion cells
3
Epidermal cells
4
Mesophyll cells
PhysicsOscillations
Q.
For a simple pendulum, having time period T, the variation of kinetic energy (K.E.) with time (t) is represented by :
1
Graph (1) — KE starts at 0, rises to max at T/2, returns to 0 at T (cosine-squared shape starting from 0)
2
Graph (2) — KE starts at max, goes to 0 at T/4, rises to max at T/2, periodic with period T/2
3
Graph (3) — KE is constant throughout
4
Graph (4) — KE starts at 0, rises to max at T/4, returns to 0 at T/2, period T/2 (sine-squared shape)
PhysicsProperties of Matter
Q.
Match List I with List II :
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
2
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
3
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I ⟶ A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (see solution)
4
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
PhysicsUnits & Measurements
Q.
The speed of light in vacuum is taken as unity. If light takes 6 min 40 s to reach the Earth from the Sun, the distance between the Sun and the Earth in new unit is :
1
3 × 10⁸
2
3 × 10¹⁰
3
400
4
500
PhysicsAlternating Current
Q.
An ac circuit contains a resistance of 1 kΩ, a capacitor of 0·1 μF and an inductor of 1 mH connected in series. The resonance frequency of the circuit is approximately :
1
10·1 kHz
2
20·7 kHz
3
15·9 kHz
4
13·5 kHz
PhysicsRay Optics
Q.
In a concave lens, a ray of light emanating from the object parallel to the principal axis of the lens, after refraction :
1
Emerges parallel to the principal axis.
2
Appears to diverge from the first principal focus.
3
Passes through 2F, which is the radius of curvature of the lens.
4
Passes through the second principal focus.
PhysicsUnits & Measurements
Q.
Each side of a metallic cube of mass 5·580 kg is measured to be 9·0 cm. Keeping the significant figures in view, the density of the material of the cube can be best expressed as X × 10³ kg m⁻³, where the value of X is :
1
7·654
2
7·7
3
7·65
4
7·6
PhysicsElectrostatics
Q.
Consider two uncharged capacitors of equal capacitance 200 pF. One of them is charged by a 100 V supply and disconnected. Now this capacitor is connected to the uncharged capacitor. The amount of electrostatic energy lost in the process is :
1
0·5 × 10⁻⁶ J
2
1·0 × 10⁻⁶ J
3
0·5 J
4
1·0 J
ChemistryOrganic Chemistry
Q.
The major product Z formed in the following sequence of reactions is :
1
C₂H₅−N=N−OH
2
C₂H₅OH (Ethanol)
3
C₂H₅NO₂
4
C₂H₅NH₂
ChemistryIonic Equilibrium
Q.
In a qualitative analysis Bi³⁺ is detected by appearance of precipitate of BiO(OH)(s). Calculate pH when the following equilibrium exists at 298 K :
1
4·699
2
8·714
3
9·301
4
5·286
Chemistryp-Block Elements
Q.
When 1 dm³ of CO₂ gas is passed over hot coke, the volume of gaseous mixture after complete reaction at STP becomes 1·4 dm³. The composition of the gaseous mixture at STP is :
1
0·6 dm³ of CO, 0·8 dm³ of CO₂
2
0·8 dm³ of CO, 0·8 dm³ of CO₂
3
0·8 dm³ of CO, 0·6 dm³ of CO₂
4
0·6 dm³ of CO, 0·4 dm³ of CO₂
ChemistryHaloalkanes & Haloarenes
Q.
The number of chlorine atoms present in the organic products X and Y of the following reactions, respectively, are :
1
3 and 6
2
6 and 6
3
6 and 3
4
3 and 3
ChemistryHaloalkanes
Q.
In the following reaction sequence, X and Z respectively are :
1
X = POCl₃ ; Z = CH₃−CH(Br)−CH₃
2
X = H₃PO₃ ; Z = CH₃CH₂CH₂−Br
3
X = H₃PO₃ ; Z = CH₃−CH(Br)−CH₃
4
X = POCl₃ ; Z = CH₃CH₂CH₂−Br
Chemistryp-Block Elements
Q.
Identify the correct statement about ClF₃ from the following options :
1
It has a trigonal pyramidal geometry with two lone pairs on Cl atom.
2
It has T-shaped geometry with two lone pairs on Cl atom.
3
It has a planar trigonal geometry with two lone pairs on Cl atom.
4
It has T-shaped geometry with three lone pairs on Cl atom.
ChemistryElectrochemistry
Q.
Calculate emf of the half cell given below :
1
0·109 V
2
0·035 V
3
−0·035 V
4
−0·109 V
Chemistryd-Block Elements
Q.
The calculated 'spin-only' magnetic moment of Ti²⁺ (3d²) is :
1
2·84 BM
2
5·92 BM
3
4·90 BM
4
3·87 BM
ChemistryOrganic Chemistry
Q.
Two products X and Y are formed in the following reaction sequence. The suitable method for separation of products X and Y is :
1
Continuous extraction
2
Differential extraction
3
Fractional distillation
4
Sublimation
ChemistryAtomic Structure
Q.
A bulb is rated at 150 watt, converting 8% energy into light. If energy of one photon is 4·42 × 10⁻¹⁹ J, how many photons are emitted by the bulb per second ?
1
1·35 × 10¹⁹
2
3·06 × 10¹⁹
3
2·71 × 10¹⁹
4
27·2 × 10¹⁹
ChemistryQualitative Analysis
Q.
In a test tube containing a salt, a few drops of dilute H₂SO₄ was added, which gave colourless vapours having the smell of vinegar. The vapours turned the blue litmus paper red. Identify the correct anion from the following :
1
Acetate, CH₃COO⁻
2
Carbonate, CO₃²⁻
3
Sulphate, SO₄²⁻
4
Sulphide, S²⁻
Chemistryp-Block Elements
Q.
Identify the incorrect statement from the following :
1
Carbon has the ability to form pπ-pπ multiple bond with itself.
2
ECl₃ (E = B and Al) is a monomer when E = B and a dimer when E = Al.
3
Oxygen exhibits only −2 oxidation state.
4
The order of catenation of Group 14 elements is C >> Si > Ge ≈ Sn.
Chemistryf-Block Elements
Q.
Although +3 oxidation state is most common in lanthanoids, cerium still shows +4 oxidation state because :
1
Its nearest inert gas is Radon.
2
After losing one more electron, it acquires 4f¹⁴ electronic configuration.
3
Its atomic number is 61.
4
After losing one more electron, it acquires 4f⁰ electronic configuration.
ChemistryOrganic Analysis
Q.
During Lassaigne's test, the elements present in an organic compound are converted from :
1
Covalent form to covalent form
2
Ionic form to ionic form
3
Covalent form to ionic form
4
Ionic form to covalent form
ChemistryMole Concept
Q.
The number of hydrogen atoms present in 5·4 g of urea is : (Molar mass of urea: 60 g mol⁻¹, Nₐ = 6·022 × 10²³)
1
2·168 × 10²³
2
2·168 × 10²²
3
1·084 × 10²²
4
1·084 × 10²³
Chemistryp-Block Elements
Q.
Identify the incorrect statement from the following :
1
P(C₂H₅)₃ and As(C₆H₅)₃ form dπ-dπ bond with transition metals.
2
Nitrogen can form dπ-pπ bond with oxygen.
3
Nitrogen can form pπ-pπ multiple bonds with itself.
4
Phosphorus, arsenic and antimony show catenation property.
ChemistryAnalytical Chemistry
Q.
Phenolphthalein is used as an indicator for the titration of sodium hydroxide solution against a standard solution of oxalic acid. The colour change observed at an alkaline pH close to the equivalence point is :
1
Pinkish red to yellow
2
Yellow to pinkish red
3
Colourless to pink
4
Pink to colourless
ChemistryThermodynamics
Q.
At a certain temperature T(K), during a process, 500 J is absorbed by the system and work of 200 J is done by the system. Then, change in internal energy of the system is :
1
700 J
2
300 J
3
400 J
4
500 J
ChemistryIndustrial Chemistry
Q.
Methane reacts with steam at 1273 K in the presence of nickel catalyst to form :
1
CO and H₂
2
CO₂ and H₂O
3
CO₂ and H₂O₂
4
CO₂ and H₂
ChemistryElectrochemistry
Q.
A solution of copper sulphate is electrolysed for 10 minutes with a current of 1·5 amperes. The mass of copper deposited at cathode is : (Molar mass of Cu = 63 g mol⁻¹; 1 F = 96487 C mol⁻¹)
1
2·4036 g
2
1·7018 g
3
0·5876 g
4
0·2938 g
ChemistryOrganic Chemistry
Q.
The functional group that can be identified through phthalein dye test is :
1
Phenolic
2
Alcohol
3
Aldehyde
4
Carboxylic acid
ChemistryIonic Equilibrium
Q.
At 298 K, a certain buffer solution contains equal concentrations of X⁻ and HX. Kb for X⁻ is 10⁻¹⁰. What is the pH of this buffer solution?
1
2
2
10
3
4
4
6
ChemistryPeriodic Properties
Q.
Identify the incorrect statement from the following :
1
The largest and smallest species among Mg, Mg²⁺, Al and Al³⁺ are Al and Mg²⁺ respectively.
2
The IUPAC name of the element with atomic number 107 is Unnilseptium.
3
The similarity in behaviour of Li with Mg is referred to as diagonal relationship.
4
The oxidation state and covalency of Al in [AlCl(H₂O)₅]²⁺ are +3 and 6 respectively.
ChemistryPeriodic Properties
Q.
The correct order of increasing metallic character of Na, Be, P, Mg and Si is :
1
P < Si < Be < Mg < Na
2
Be < Si < P < Mg < Na
3
P < Si < Na < Mg < Be
4
P < Mg < Be < Si < Na
ChemistryChemical Kinetics
Q.
For a certain reaction R → Product, the plot of concentration [R] vs time has a negative slope (straight line). The order of reaction is :
1
0
2
1
3
2
4
2·5
ChemistryChemical Bonding
Q.
The correct formal charges on oxygen atoms numbered 2, 1 and 3 respectively in ozone (O₃) are :
1
−1, 0, +1
2
0, +1, −1
3
0, 0, 0
4
+1, 0, −1
ChemistryChemical Equilibrium
Q.
Identify the reaction for which Kp ≠ Kc :
1
H₂(g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
2
N₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2NO(g)
3
N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g)
4
H₂O(g) + CO(g) ⇌ H₂(g) + CO₂(g)
ChemistryChemical Kinetics
Q.
Given: ln k = 14·34 − 1·25×10⁴/T for a first order reaction. The energy of activation in kcal mol⁻¹ is : (R = 1·987 cal mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)
1
12·42
2
14·34
3
18·63
4
24·84
ChemistryOrganic Chemistry — Amines
Q.
The following two reactions give the same foul smelling product Z. C₂H₅Cl + X → Z and C₂H₅CONH₂ →(Br₂/NaOH) Y →(CHCl₃/ethanolic KOH) Z. X and Z respectively are :
1
X = AgCN; Z = C₂H₅CN
2
X = KCN; Z = C₂H₅CN
3
X = KCN; Z = C₂H₅NC
4
X = AgCN; Z = C₂H₅NC
BiologyBiodiversity
Q.
"The Evil Quartet" of biodiversity loss includes which of the following?
1
Over-exploitation; Alien species invasions; Air pollution; Co-extinctions
2
Habitat loss and fragmentation; Over-exploitation; Alien species invasions; Co-extinctions
3
Habitat loss and fragmentation; Air pollution; Water pollution; Co-extinctions
4
Over-exploitation; Alien species invasions; Soil pollution; Co-extinctions
BiologyCell Biology
Q.
Which one of the following is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis?
1
Nucleolus
2
Chromatin
3
Centrosome
4
Kinetochore
BiologyCell Division
Q.
Match List I (Phase of cell cycle) with List II (Activity): A. G₁ phase B. S phase C. G₂ phase D. M phase
1
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
2
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
BiologyEcosystem
Q.
Match List I with List II: A. Productivity B. Net primary productivity C. Gross primary productivity D. Secondary productivity
1
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
4
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
BiologyBiodiversity
Q.
Which of the following statements are correct? A. Amazon rainforest cut for soyabeans = habitat loss. B. Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon extinct due to over-exploitation. C. Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria led to population GROWTH of cichlid fish. D. Water hyacinth is an invasive species. E. When a species becomes extinct, associated species are not affected.
1
B, C and D only
2
A, B and D only
3
A, B and E only
4
C, D and E only
BiologyBiomolecules
Q.
Identify the correct statements about biomolecules: A. Lipids are generally water soluble. B. Proteins are polypeptides. C. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugars. D. Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines. E. Almost all enzymes are proteins.
1
C, D and E only
2
B, C and E only
3
B, D and E only
4
A, B and C only
BiologyPhotosynthesis
Q.
How many ATP and NADPH molecules are required to make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin pathway?
1
18 ATP and 12 NADPH
2
6 ATP and 12 NADPH
3
24 ATP and 18 NADPH
4
12 ATP and 18 NADPH
BiologyBiotechnology
Q.
Which of the following statements are NOT true regarding restriction endonucleases? A. They are called molecular scissors. B. Responsible for restricting bacteriophage growth in E. coli. C. They cut DNA only at the centre of palindromic sites. D. They remove nucleotides only from the ends of DNA. E. They recognise specific palindromic base-sequences.
1
A and B only
2
D and E only
3
C and D only
4
A and E only
BiologyEcosystem
Q.
Match List I with List II: A. Decomposition B. Detritus C. Mineralisation D. Humification
1
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
3
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
4
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
BiologyPlant Kingdom
Q.
In which one of the following, the ovules are not enclosed by an ovary wall and remain exposed?
1
Selaginella
2
Funaria
3
Pinus
4
Wolffia
BiologyPlant Morphology
Q.
Match List I (Placentation) with List II (Example): A. Marginal B. Axile C. Parietal D. Basal — I. Mustard II. Pea III. Marigold IV. Lemon
1
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
2
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
3
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
4
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
BiologyPlant Anatomy
Q.
In angiosperms, root hairs arise from which one of the following regions of the root?
1
The root cap zone
2
The region of meristematic activity
3
The region of elongation
4
The region of maturation
BiologyPlant Growth
Q.
Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of plant cells in the phase of elongation?
1
Increased vacuolation
2
Large conspicuous nuclei
3
Cell enlargement
4
New cell wall deposition
BiologyMolecular Biology
Q.
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to a transcription unit? A. Defined by promoter+structural gene+terminator. B. Promoter at 5′-end of structural gene. C. Promoter binds RNA polymerase. D. Promoter defines template and coding strands. E. Terminator at 3′-end of coding strand, defines end of transcription.
1
A, B, C, D and E (all)
2
B, C, D and E only
3
A, C, D and E only
4
A, B, C and D only
BiologyBiomolecules
Q.
Alpha-helix is found in which level of protein structure?
1
Quaternary structure
2
Tertiary structure
3
Primary structure
4
Secondary structure
BiologyBiomolecules
Q.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding amino acids? A. They are substituted methanes. B. Serine is an aromatic amino acid. C. Valine is a neutral amino acid. D. Lysine is an acidic amino acid.
1
C and D only
2
A and B only
3
A and C only
4
B and C only
BiologyPlant Anatomy
Q.
The main function of bulliform cells in grasses is:
1
To make the leaf impermeable to fungal spores
2
To perform photosynthesis
3
To minimise water loss during water stress
4
To transport water
BiologyPhotosynthesis
Q.
Find the INCORRECT statement(s) about photosynthesis: A. Water splitting complex is associated with PS I. B. C₄ plants use the C₃ pathway of CO₂ fixation as main biosynthetic pathway. C. In C₄ plants, photorespiration does not occur. D. C₃ plants exhibit Kranz anatomy. E. ATP synthesis in chloroplast occurs through chemiosmosis.
1
B only
2
A and D only
3
B and C only
4
B and E only
BiologyPlant Anatomy
Q.
Match List I with List II: A. Conjunctive tissue B. Casparian strips C. Subsidiary cells D. Starch sheath — I. Specialised cells in vicinity of guard cells II. Endodermal cells rich in starch III. Tissue between xylem and phloem IV. Endodermal cells with suberin deposition
1
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
2
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
4
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
BiologyBiotechnology
Q.
Match List I with List II: A. GMO B. Thermostable DNA polymerase C. Ti plasmid D. pBR322 — I. Agrobacterium tumefaciens II. Bt cotton III. Thermus aquaticus IV. Escherichia coli
1
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
2
A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
3
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
4
A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
BiologyPlant Growth & Development
Q.
Heterophyllous development in response to environment is an example of which of the following phenomena?
1
Dedifferentiation
2
Elasticity
3
Redifferentiation
4
Plasticity
BiologyPlant Morphology
Q.
In racemose inflorescence, ____________.
1
The main axis terminates in a flower
2
The growth is limited
3
Flowers are borne in an acropetal succession
4
Flowers are solitary
BiologyGenetics
Q.
Which disorder is caused by substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu)
by Valine (Val) at the 6th position of the beta globin chain?
by Valine (Val) at the 6th position of the beta globin chain?
1
Haemophilia
2
Thalassemia
3
Sickle-cell anaemia
4
Phenylketonuria
BiologyGenetics
Q.
Match List I with List II:
A. Incomplete dominance → I. Human skin colour
B. Co-dominance → II. Flower colour in Antirrhinum sp.
C. Pleiotropy → III. Phenylketonuria in humans
D. Polygenic inheritance → IV. ABO blood groups
A. Incomplete dominance → I. Human skin colour
B. Co-dominance → II. Flower colour in Antirrhinum sp.
C. Pleiotropy → III. Phenylketonuria in humans
D. Polygenic inheritance → IV. ABO blood groups
1
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
2
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
3
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
4
A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
BiologyPlant Reproduction
Q.
Arrange in correct developmental sequence for microsporogenesis:
A. Microspore tetrads
B. Sporogenous tissue
C. Pollen grains
D. Pollen mother cells
A. Microspore tetrads
B. Sporogenous tissue
C. Pollen grains
D. Pollen mother cells
1
D, A, C, B
2
B, D, C, A
3
B, D, A, C
4
A, D, C, B
BiologyBiotechnology
Q.
Arrange steps of DNA fingerprinting in correct sequence:
A. Isolation of DNA + digestion by restriction endonucleases
B. Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
C. Transferring separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes
D. Detection of hybridised DNA by autoradiography
E. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
A. Isolation of DNA + digestion by restriction endonucleases
B. Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
C. Transferring separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes
D. Detection of hybridised DNA by autoradiography
E. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
1
A, E, C, B, D
2
A, E, B, C, D
3
A, B, D, C, E
4
A, D, B, E, C
BiologyBiodiversity and Conservation
Q.
Exploring molecular, genetic and species-level diversity for products of economic importance is called:
1
Biomagnification
2
Biofortification
3
Bioremediation
4
Bioprospecting
BiologyGenetics
Q.
Which statements are TRUE for sex-determination in honeybees?
A. Offspring from union of sperm + egg develops as female (queen or worker)
B. Unfertilised egg develops as male by parthenogenesis
C. Male has half the chromosomes than female
D. Males produce sperms by meiosis
E. Honeybees have haplodiploid sex-determination
A. Offspring from union of sperm + egg develops as female (queen or worker)
B. Unfertilised egg develops as male by parthenogenesis
C. Male has half the chromosomes than female
D. Males produce sperms by meiosis
E. Honeybees have haplodiploid sex-determination
1
A, B and C only
2
B, C and D only
3
A, B, C and E only
4
A, B, C, D and E
BiologyBiotechnology
Q.
Identify the correct sequence of steps in each cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR):
1
Denaturation → Annealing → Extension
2
Denaturation → Extension → Annealing
3
Extension → Annealing → Denaturation
4
Annealing → Denaturation → Extension
BiologyBiotechnology
Q.
Which statements are correct about DNA separation and visualisation?
A. Cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors (restriction enzymes)
B. DNA fragments separate by size in agarose gel on electrophoresis
C. Separated DNA fragments can be seen WITHOUT staining when exposed to UV light
D. Separated DNA fragments stained with ethidium bromide can be seen under UV light
A. Cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors (restriction enzymes)
B. DNA fragments separate by size in agarose gel on electrophoresis
C. Separated DNA fragments can be seen WITHOUT staining when exposed to UV light
D. Separated DNA fragments stained with ethidium bromide can be seen under UV light
1
A, B and D only
2
B, C and D only
3
A, B, C and D
4
A, C and D only
BiologyBiological Classification
Q.
The main criteria used for Five Kingdom Classification by R.H. Whittaker (1969) included:
A. Cell structure
B. Body organisation
C. Presence of flagellum
D. Reproduction
E. Phylogenetic relationships
A. Cell structure
B. Body organisation
C. Presence of flagellum
D. Reproduction
E. Phylogenetic relationships
1
A, B, D and E only
2
A, B, C, D and E
3
A, B and E only
4
B, C and D only
BiologyPlant Reproduction
Q.
Which one of the following is a triploid (3n) cell?
1
Central cell
2
Primary endosperm cell
3
Zygote
4
Synergid
BiologyMolecular Biology
Q.
Which statements about DNA helix packaging are WRONG?
A. Histones organised as histone octamer (8 molecules)
B. Histones are negatively charged basic proteins
C. Histones are rich in lysine and arginine (basic amino acids)
D. Positively charged DNA wrapped around histone octamer
E. Higher-level chromatin packaging requires non-histone chromosomal (NHC) proteins
A. Histones organised as histone octamer (8 molecules)
B. Histones are negatively charged basic proteins
C. Histones are rich in lysine and arginine (basic amino acids)
D. Positively charged DNA wrapped around histone octamer
E. Higher-level chromatin packaging requires non-histone chromosomal (NHC) proteins
1
B and D only
2
A and E only
3
B and C only
4
C and E only
BiologyMolecular Biology
Q.
In the lac operon, the z gene codes for:
1
Transacetylase
2
Repressor of lac operon
3
Permease
4
Beta-galactosidase
BiologyPlant Growth Regulators
Q.
Match the growth regulators with their functions:
A. 2,4-D → I. Brewing industry
B. GA₃ → II. Stimulation of stomatal closure
C. Kinetin → III. Herbicide
D. ABA → IV. Nutrient mobilisation
A. 2,4-D → I. Brewing industry
B. GA₃ → II. Stimulation of stomatal closure
C. Kinetin → III. Herbicide
D. ABA → IV. Nutrient mobilisation
1
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
2
A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
3
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
4
A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
BiologyBiotechnology
Q.
Arrange the steps of somatic hybridisation in correct sequence:
A. Digestion of cell walls
B. Isolation of naked protoplasts
C. Fusion of protoplasts to get hybrid protoplast
D. Isolation of single cells from two different plant varieties
E. Growing hybrid protoplast to form a new plant
A. Digestion of cell walls
B. Isolation of naked protoplasts
C. Fusion of protoplasts to get hybrid protoplast
D. Isolation of single cells from two different plant varieties
E. Growing hybrid protoplast to form a new plant
1
E, A, B, C, D
2
D, A, B, C, E
3
E, B, A, D, C
4
D, B, A, E, C
BiologyRespiration
Q.
Given: 2(C₅₁H₉₈O₆) + 145 O₂ → 102 CO₂ + 98 H₂O + energy
The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of this biomolecule is:
The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of this biomolecule is:
1
Less than 0.5
2
Between 0.5 and 0.95
3
Between 1.25 and 2
4
1.0
BiologyBiodiversity & Conservation
Q.
How is the ongoing 6th mass extinction different from the previous 5 episodes?
1
Current extinction rates are far LOWER than previous episodes
2
Present extinction rates are 100 to 1000 times faster than pre-human times
3
Present net species extinction rate is zero
4
Current extinction rate is nearly 10 times faster
BiologyBiomolecules
Q.
Match List I with List II:
A. Trypsin → I. Intercellular ground substance
B. Morphine → II. Lectin
C. Concanavalin A → III. Enzyme
D. Collagen → IV. Alkaloid
A. Trypsin → I. Intercellular ground substance
B. Morphine → II. Lectin
C. Concanavalin A → III. Enzyme
D. Collagen → IV. Alkaloid
1
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
2
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
4
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
BiologyBiological Classification
Q.
Which statement is NOT TRUE about universal rules of binomial nomenclature?
1
Both words, when handwritten, are separately underlined or printed in italics
2
The specific epithet starts with a small letter
3
The first word in the biological name represents the specific epithet
4
The generic name starts with a capital letter
BiologyPhotosynthesis
Q.
The enzyme required for carboxylation in the Calvin cycle is:
1
PEP carboxylase
2
RuBP carboxylase-oxygenase (RuBisCO)
3
Carboxypeptidase
4
Hexokinase
BiologyPlant Reproduction
Q.
Which type of pollination brings genetically different pollen grains to the stigma?
1
Geitonogamy
2
Autogamy
3
Xenogamy
4
Cleistogamy
BiologyRespiration
Q.
Match List I (Process) with List II (Location):
A. Glycolysis → I. Inner mitochondrial membrane
B. ETS → II. Mitochondrial matrix
C. Accumulation of protons → III. Cytoplasm
D. Krebs cycle → IV. Intermembrane space
A. Glycolysis → I. Inner mitochondrial membrane
B. ETS → II. Mitochondrial matrix
C. Accumulation of protons → III. Cytoplasm
D. Krebs cycle → IV. Intermembrane space
1
A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
2
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
4
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
BiologyBiotechnology
Q.
Insertion of foreign DNA at BamHI site in E. coli cloning vector pBR322 results in loss of resistance towards:
1
Gentamycin
2
Ampicillin and tetracycline
3
Tetracycline
4
Ampicillin
BiologyGenetics
Q.
The sixth mutant codon of beta-globin gene causing polymerization of Haemoglobin and change in RBC shape is:
1
CAG
2
GUG
3
AUG
4
GAG
BiologyReproductive Health
Q.
Choose the CORRECT statement regarding GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer):
Choose the CORRECT statement regarding GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer):
1
Ova from female donor transferred to UTERUS of infertile female
2
Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the FALLOPIAN TUBE of another female who cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and further development
3
Transfer of embryo to the uterus of surrogate mother
4
Sperm is injected directly into the cytoplasm of the egg
BiologyEcology & Reproduction
Q.
Which one of the following is an appropriate example of sexual deceit?
1
Female wasp and fig
2
Cuckoo and crow
3
Ophrys orchid and bumblebee
4
Sea anemone and clownfish
BiologyHuman Reproduction
Q.
Match embryonic development milestones with pregnancy duration:
A. Foetus movement starts and hair appears on head
B. Foetus develops limbs and digits
C. Foetus develops external genital organs
D. Body covered with fine hair (lanugo); eyelids separate
A. Foetus movement starts and hair appears on head
B. Foetus develops limbs and digits
C. Foetus develops external genital organs
D. Body covered with fine hair (lanugo); eyelids separate
1
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
2
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
3
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
4
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
BiologyHuman Reproduction
Q.
Spermatogonia undergo cell divisions to produce sperms. Select CORRECT statements:
A. Spermatogonia always undergo meiotic cell division
B. Primary spermatocytes divide mitotically to produce secondary spermatocytes
C. Secondary spermatocytes through second meiotic division produce haploid spermatids
D. Spermatids produce spermatozoa through mitosis
E. Spermatids transform into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis
A. Spermatogonia always undergo meiotic cell division
B. Primary spermatocytes divide mitotically to produce secondary spermatocytes
C. Secondary spermatocytes through second meiotic division produce haploid spermatids
D. Spermatids produce spermatozoa through mitosis
E. Spermatids transform into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis
1
C and E only
2
A, C and E only
3
B, C and D only
4
A and E only
BiologyGenetics
Q.
Both mother (heterozygous A) and father (heterozygous B) have the following genotypes.
What is the probability of having children with blood group O?
What is the probability of having children with blood group O?
1
50%
2
0%
3
75%
4
25%
BiologyHuman Physiology
Q.
Arrange the events of Renin-Angiotensin mechanism in correct order:
A. Increase in blood pressure and Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
B. Reabsorption of Na+ and water from distal tubule due to Aldosterone
C. Fall in Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
D. Vasoconstriction by Angiotensin II and release of Aldosterone
E. Renin converts Angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I, followed by conversion to Angiotensin II
A. Increase in blood pressure and Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
B. Reabsorption of Na+ and water from distal tubule due to Aldosterone
C. Fall in Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
D. Vasoconstriction by Angiotensin II and release of Aldosterone
E. Renin converts Angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I, followed by conversion to Angiotensin II
1
C, E, D, B, A
2
E, C, D, B, A
3
A, C, E, D, B
4
C, D, E, B, A
BiologyHuman Physiology
Q.
Match respiratory volumes with their capacities:
A. ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume) → I. 2500-3000 mL
B. RV (Residual Volume) → II. 500 mL
C. IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume) → III. 1000-1100 mL
D. TV (Tidal Volume) → IV. 1100-1200 mL
A. ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume) → I. 2500-3000 mL
B. RV (Residual Volume) → II. 500 mL
C. IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume) → III. 1000-1100 mL
D. TV (Tidal Volume) → IV. 1100-1200 mL
1
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
2
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
3
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4
A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
BiologyReproductive Health
Q.
Match contraceptive devices with their types:
A. Progestasert → I. Barrier made of rubber used by females
B. Multiload 375 → II. Oral contraceptive
C. Diaphragm → III. Hormone-releasing IUD
D. Saheli → IV. Copper-releasing IUD
A. Progestasert → I. Barrier made of rubber used by females
B. Multiload 375 → II. Oral contraceptive
C. Diaphragm → III. Hormone-releasing IUD
D. Saheli → IV. Copper-releasing IUD
1
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
2
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
3
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
4
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
BiologyCell Biology
Q.
Non-membrane bound cell organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are:
1
Centrosomes
2
Ribosomes
3
Lysosomes
4
Mitochondria
BiologyEcosystem
Q.
Ecological pyramids are generally inverted for:
1
Pyramid of energy in pond ecosystem
2
Pyramid of biomass in sea
3
Pyramid of number in grassland
4
Pyramid of biomass in grassland
BiologyAnimal Kingdom
Q.
A flightless bird with forelimbs modified as paddle-like structures suited for swimming is:
1
Struthio
2
Psittacula
3
Neophron
4
Aptenodytes
BiologyBiotechnology
Q.
Match bioactive molecules with their importance:
A. Streptokinase → I. Immunosuppressive agent
B. Statins → II. Removal of clots from blood vessels
C. Lipases → III. Blood cholesterol-lowering agent
D. Cyclosporin A → IV. Detergent formulations
A. Streptokinase → I. Immunosuppressive agent
B. Statins → II. Removal of clots from blood vessels
C. Lipases → III. Blood cholesterol-lowering agent
D. Cyclosporin A → IV. Detergent formulations
1
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
2
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
4
A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
BiologyCell Biology
Q.
Choose correct statements about cell organelles:
A. Endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, ER and mitochondria
B. Rough ER bears ribosomes on its surface
C. Both mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA
D. A network of protein filaments called cytoskeleton is present in eukaryotic cells
A. Endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, ER and mitochondria
B. Rough ER bears ribosomes on its surface
C. Both mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA
D. A network of protein filaments called cytoskeleton is present in eukaryotic cells
Choose correct statements about cell organelles:
A. Endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, ER and mitochondria
B. Rough ER bears ribosomes on its surface
C. Both mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA
D. A network of protein filaments called cytoskeleton is present in eukaryotic cells
A. Endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, ER and mitochondria
B. Rough ER bears ribosomes on its surface
C. Both mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA
D. A network of protein filaments called cytoskeleton is present in eukaryotic cells
1
C and E only
2
A and B only
3
A, B and C only
4
B, C and D only
BiologyAnimal Kingdom
Q.
Select the set of fishes belonging to class Osteichthyes:
1
Devil fish, Cuttlefish and Hagfish
2
Starfish, Hagfish and Cuttlefish
3
Flying fish, Angel fish and Fighting fish
4
Sawfish, Fighting fish and Dogfish
BiologyGenetics
Q.
In a grasshopper population, some members have 23 chromosomes and others have 24. The 23 and 24 chromosome-bearing members are respectively:
1
All males
2
All females
3
Females and males respectively
4
Males and females respectively
BiologyHuman Physiology
Q.
WBC count of a person is 8000/cu.mm. What would be the approximate count of eosinophils and lymphocytes in the same blood sample?
1
160-240/cu.mm and 3200-4000/cu.mm
2
400-800/cu.mm and 1600-2000/cu.mm
3
160-240/cu.mm and 1600-2000/cu.mm
4
320-640/cu.mm and 3200-4000/cu.mm
BiologyHuman Health and Disease
Q.
Match List I (Drugs) with List II (their effects):
A. Nicotine → I. Produces feelings of sedation
B. Morphine → II. Stimulates adrenal gland to release catecholamines
C. Heroin → III. Binds to opioid receptors; used as painkiller
D. Cocaine → IV. Produces sense of euphoria and increased energy
A. Nicotine → I. Produces feelings of sedation
B. Morphine → II. Stimulates adrenal gland to release catecholamines
C. Heroin → III. Binds to opioid receptors; used as painkiller
D. Cocaine → IV. Produces sense of euphoria and increased energy
1
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
2
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
3
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
4
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
BiologyHuman Physiology
Q.
Match List I (conditions) with List II (descriptions):
A. Gout → I. Autoimmune disease; destruction of cartilage
B. Rheumatoid arthritis → II. Reduction in bone mass
C. Osteoporosis → III. Inflammation of joints due to deposition of uric acid crystals
D. Osteoarthritis → IV. Wearing away of cartilage at joint ends
A. Gout → I. Autoimmune disease; destruction of cartilage
B. Rheumatoid arthritis → II. Reduction in bone mass
C. Osteoporosis → III. Inflammation of joints due to deposition of uric acid crystals
D. Osteoarthritis → IV. Wearing away of cartilage at joint ends
1
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
2
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
BiologyGenetics
Q.
In which animal do haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametes?
1
Male honeybees
2
Male grasshoppers
3
Male earthworms
4
Female honeybees
BiologyRespiration
Q.
Arrange the steps of respiration in humans in correct sequence:
A. Utilization of O2 and production of CO2 by cells
B. Transport of O2 and CO2 between lungs and body cells
C. Breathing (inspiration and expiration)
D. Release of CO2 and absorption of O2 through gaseous exchange at tissue level
E. Exchange of O2 and CO2 between blood and alveoli
A. Utilization of O2 and production of CO2 by cells
B. Transport of O2 and CO2 between lungs and body cells
C. Breathing (inspiration and expiration)
D. Release of CO2 and absorption of O2 through gaseous exchange at tissue level
E. Exchange of O2 and CO2 between blood and alveoli
1
A,B,C,D,E
2
E,A,C,D,B
3
C,A,B,E,D
4
C,B,E,A,D
BiologyPlant Reproduction
Q.
Arrange the layers present around the female gamete of an angiosperm from outermost to innermost:
A. Parietal cell layer
B. Middle layer
C. Integuments
D. Nucellus
A. Parietal cell layer
B. Middle layer
C. Integuments
D. Nucellus
1
C,A,D,B
2
C,A,B,D
3
D,B,A,C
4
A,C,B,D
BiologyBiotechnology
Q.
Alpha-1-antitrypsin produced from transgenic animals is used for the treatment of:
1
Alzheimer disease
2
Emphysema
3
Rheumatoid arthritis
4
Cystic fibrosis
BiologyCell Biology
Q.
Select correct statements regarding cell membrane in eukaryotic cell:
A. Membrane of human RBCs has approximately 52% protein
B. Major phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer
C. Extensions of plasma membrane into the cell form mesosomes
D. Tails towards inner part of lipid bilayer are hydrophobic
E. Singer and Nicolson proposed the Unit Membrane model
A. Membrane of human RBCs has approximately 52% protein
B. Major phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer
C. Extensions of plasma membrane into the cell form mesosomes
D. Tails towards inner part of lipid bilayer are hydrophobic
E. Singer and Nicolson proposed the Unit Membrane model
1
A, B and D only
2
B, C and D only
3
A, B, C and D only
4
A, B, D and E only
BiologyAnimal Kingdom
Q.
Male frogs can be distinguished from female frogs due to the presence of:
A. Bulging eyes
B. Vocal sacs
C. Webbed digits in feet
D. Copulatory pad on first digit of forelimbs
E. Olive green-coloured skin with dark irregular spots
A. Bulging eyes
B. Vocal sacs
C. Webbed digits in feet
D. Copulatory pad on first digit of forelimbs
E. Olive green-coloured skin with dark irregular spots
1
B and D only
2
A and E only
3
A, C and E only
4
C, D and E only
BiologyEcology
Q.
Which equation depicts Verhulst-Pearl logistic population growth?
1
dN/dt = rN(K-N)/K
2
dN/dt = rN(K+N)/K
3
dN/dt = rN(K)/(K-N)
4
dN/dt = rN(K-N)/N
BiologyAnimal Kingdom
Q.
Choose CORRECT statements regarding frog anatomy:
A. Hepatic portal system is venous connection between liver and intestine
B. There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain in frog
C. Ureters and oviducts open separately into cloaca in female frogs
D. Hind brain is also called cerebellar hemisphere in frog
E. Lymph hearts are found in frogs
A. Hepatic portal system is venous connection between liver and intestine
B. There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain in frog
C. Ureters and oviducts open separately into cloaca in female frogs
D. Hind brain is also called cerebellar hemisphere in frog
E. Lymph hearts are found in frogs
Choose CORRECT statements regarding frog anatomy:
A. Hepatic portal system is venous connection between liver and intestine
B. There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain in frog
C. Ureters and oviducts open separately into cloaca in female frogs
D. Hind brain is also called cerebellar hemisphere in frog
E. Lymph hearts are found in frogs
A. Hepatic portal system is venous connection between liver and intestine
B. There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain in frog
C. Ureters and oviducts open separately into cloaca in female frogs
D. Hind brain is also called cerebellar hemisphere in frog
E. Lymph hearts are found in frogs
1
A, C and E only
2
A, B and C only
3
B, C and D only
4
A, C, D and E only
BiologyHuman Physiology
Q.
Select INCORRECT statements with reference to Rh grouping:
A. Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when foetus is Rh-ve and mother is Rh+ve
B. Rh antigen is observed on RBCs of the majority of humans
C. Before blood transfusion Rh group should also be matched
D. Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs in second or subsequent pregnancies
A. Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when foetus is Rh-ve and mother is Rh+ve
B. Rh antigen is observed on RBCs of the majority of humans
C. Before blood transfusion Rh group should also be matched
D. Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs in second or subsequent pregnancies
1
A and C only
2
A only
3
B and D only
4
C and D only
BiologyHuman Physiology
Q.
Which statements are correct with reference to human endoskeleton?
A. Human skull is monocondylic
B. The joint between two adjoining vertebrae is a cartilaginous joint
C. In human beings the number of cervical vertebrae is seven
D. All ribs except the last 2 pairs are bicephalic
A. Human skull is monocondylic
B. The joint between two adjoining vertebrae is a cartilaginous joint
C. In human beings the number of cervical vertebrae is seven
D. All ribs except the last 2 pairs are bicephalic
1
B and C only
2
A and D only
3
A, B and C only
4
B, C and D only
BiologyHuman Physiology
Q.
Match List I (Hormones) with List II (Functions):
A. Cortisol → I. Stimulates formation of alveoli in mammary glands
B. Aldosterone → II. Produces anti-inflammatory reactions
C. Cholecystokinin → III. Stimulates reabsorption of Na+ and water
D. Progesterone → IV. Stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice
A. Cortisol → I. Stimulates formation of alveoli in mammary glands
B. Aldosterone → II. Produces anti-inflammatory reactions
C. Cholecystokinin → III. Stimulates reabsorption of Na+ and water
D. Progesterone → IV. Stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice
1
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
2
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
3
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
BiologyHuman Health and Disease
Q.
Arrange stages of Plasmodium life cycle in correct order:
A. Parasites reproduce asexually in RBCs, bursting the cells
B. Parasites reproduce asexually in liver cells, bursting them and releasing into blood
C. Gametocytes develop in RBCs
D. Sporozoites injected by infected female Anopheles mosquito
A. Parasites reproduce asexually in RBCs, bursting the cells
B. Parasites reproduce asexually in liver cells, bursting them and releasing into blood
C. Gametocytes develop in RBCs
D. Sporozoites injected by infected female Anopheles mosquito
1
D, B, A, C
2
A, B, C, D
3
B, D, A, C
4
C, A, B, D
BiologyAnimal Kingdom
Q.
Select the INCORRECT statements:
A. Digestive system in Platyhelminthes is incomplete
B. Bilateral symmetry is a characteristic of ADULT Echinoderms
C. Pseudocoelom is possessed by Aschelminthes
D. Notochord is persistent throughout life in class Chondrichthyes
E. Poriferans are acoelomate
A. Digestive system in Platyhelminthes is incomplete
B. Bilateral symmetry is a characteristic of ADULT Echinoderms
C. Pseudocoelom is possessed by Aschelminthes
D. Notochord is persistent throughout life in class Chondrichthyes
E. Poriferans are acoelomate
1
B and D only
2
A and C only
3
A, C and E only
4
C, D and E only
BiologyNeural Control
Q.
The specific receptors for neurotransmitters in a synapse are present on:
1
Post-synaptic membrane
2
Pre-synaptic membrane
3
Myelin sheath
4
Schwann cell
BiologyEcosystem
Q.
Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?
1
(KCal m⁻²)yr⁻¹
2
gm⁻²
3
KCal m⁻²
4
KCal m⁻³
PhysicsElectromagnetic Waves
Q.
The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by Ez = 60 cos(5x + 1.5 x 10^9 t) V/m. Then the expression for the corresponding magnetic field is:
1
By = 60 sin(5x + 1.5 x 10⁹ t) T
2
By = 2 x 10^-7 cos(5x + 1.5 x 10⁹ t) T
3
Bx = 2 x 10^-7 cos(5x + 1.5 x 10⁹ t) T
4
Bz = 60 cos(5x + 1.5 x 10⁹ t) T
PhysicsWaves
Q.
A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency f in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically in a water drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to:
1
2f
2
f/2
3
f
4
3f/2
PhysicsMotion in Magnetic Field
Q.
An electron (mass 9x10^-31 kg, charge 1.6x10^-19 C) moving with speed c/100 is injected into a magnetic field B of magnitude 9x10^-4 T perpendicular to its direction. To prevent deflection, a uniform electric field E is applied together with B. Then (c = 3x10^8 m/s):
1
E is parallel to B, magnitude 27x10⁴ V/m
2
E is perpendicular to B, magnitude 27x10⁴ V/m
3
E is perpendicular to B, magnitude 27x10² V/m
4
E is parallel to B, magnitude 27x10² V/m
PhysicsOptics
Q.
In a certain camera, a combination of four similar thin convex lenses are arranged axially in contact. Then the power of the combination and the total magnification in comparison to power p and magnification m for each lens will be respectively:
1
p⁴ and m⁴
2
4p and 4m
3
p⁴ and 4m
4
4p and m⁴
PhysicsMagnetic Effects of Current
Q.
A 2 amp current is flowing through two different small circular copper coils having radii ratio 1:2. The ratio of their respective magnetic moments will be:
1
4:1
2
1:4
3
1:2
4
2:1
PhysicsThermodynamics
Q.
Two gases A and B are filled at same pressure in cylinders with movable pistons of radius rA and rB. On supplying equal heat to both reversibly under constant pressure, pistons of A and B displace by 16 cm and 9 cm. If change in internal energy is same, then ratio rA/rB is:
1
3/2
2
4/3
3
3/4
4
2/3
PhysicsKinetic Theory of Gases
Q.
A container has two chambers of volumes V₁ = 2 L and V₂ = 3 L separated by a thermal insulator. Chambers contain n₁ = 5 and n₂ = 4 moles of ideal gas at pressures p₁ = 1 atm and p₂ = 2 atm. When partition is removed, the equilibrium pressure is:
1
1.8 atm
2
1.3 atm
3
1.6 atm
4
1.4 atm
PhysicsGravitation
Q.
The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is about 4 times the radius of Mercury orbit. The Martian year is 687 Earth days. Then the length of 1 year on Mercury is:
1
124 Earth days
2
88 Earth days
3
225 Earth days
4
172 Earth days
PhysicsAC Circuits
Q.
In a series LCR circuit, R = 20 Ω , capacitive reactance XC = 25 Ω and inductive reactance XL = 45 Ω . The circuit is connected to a 220 V AC source. The current in the circuit and the phase angle between current and voltage are respectively:
1
11 A, φ = tan⁻¹(1)
2
7.8 A, φ = 45°
3
11 A, φ = 30°
4
7.8 A, φ = 30°
PhysicsCurrent Electricity
Q.
A wire of resistance R is cut into 8 equal pieces. Four pieces are connected in parallel and this combination is connected in series with the remaining four pieces connected in parallel. The effective resistance of the combination is:
1
R/4
2
R/8
3
R/16
4
R/32
PhysicsElectrostatics
Q.
Two small equal and similar charged spheres have charges q each and the force between them is F . A third uncharged sphere of the same size is touched to one of them and placed midway between the two original spheres. The resultant force on the middle sphere is:
1
F/2
2
3F/4
3
3F/8
4
F/4
PhysicsMeasurement
Q.
A Vernier callipers has a zero error of +0.1 cm. When measuring the diameter of a sphere, the main scale reads 5 cm and the 8th division of the Vernier scale coincides with the main scale. If the Vernier scale has 10 divisions equal to 9 main scale divisions, then the diameter of the sphere is:
1
5.18 cm
2
5.08 cm
3
4.98 cm
4
4.88 cm
PhysicsKinematics
Q.
The displacement of a particle is given by t = √(x) + x , where x is in metres and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle when velocity is zero is:
1
4 m/s ²
2
-2 m/s ²
3
-4 m/s ²
4
Zero
PhysicsAtoms and Nuclei
Q.
Suppose a particle of mass m is moving in a circular orbit due to constant centripetal force F (instead of gravity). Using Bohr's quantization condition mvr = nh/2π , the radius r and velocity v of the particle in the n -th orbit are:
1
r ∝ n², v ∝ 1/n
2
r ∝ n, v ∝ n
3
r ∝ n²/³, v ∝ n¹/³
4
r ∝ n¹/², v ∝ n⁻¹/²
PhysicsOptics
Q.
A compound microscope has objective lens of focal length fo = 2 cm and eyepiece of focal length fe = 4 cm. Length of the tube is L = 40 cm and least distance of distinct vision D = 25 cm. What is the magnification of the microscope?
1
-250
2
125
3
-125
4
250
PhysicsSimple Harmonic Motion
Q.
Two masses mA and mB are attached to two different springs k₁ and k₂ respectively. If the maximum velocities of both masses are same during their oscillations, find the ratio of their amplitudes AQ / AP :
1
√(k₂/k₁)
2
√(k₁/k₂)
3
k₁/k₂
4
k₂/k₁
PhysicsElectrostatics
Q.
An electric dipole of dipole moment p = 5 × 10⁻⁶ C·m is placed in a uniform electric field E = 4 × 10⁵ N/C. The dipole is rotated from a position of stable equilibrium to a position making 60° with the field. The change in potential energy is:
1
2 J
2
0.5 J
3
1 J
4
1.5 J
PhysicsLaws of Motion
Q.
A block slides down a smooth incline in time t . The same block slides down an identical rough inclined plane in time 2t . The coefficient of kinetic friction is (angle of inclination = 45° ):
1
0.25
2
0.50
3
0.75
4
1.00
PhysicsDual Nature of Matter
Q.
The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is (given Bohr radius a₀ = 0.529 Å):
1
0.529 Å
2
2π × 0.529 Å
3
4π × 0.529 Å
4
2 × 0.529 Å
PhysicsRotational Motion
Q.
The Sun rotates about its own axis with time period T₀ = 27 days. If the Sun expands to twice its present radius without any external torque, what will be the new time period?
1
27 days
2
54 days
3
108 days
4
13.5 days
PhysicsMeasurement
Q.
The measured physical quantities are a , b , c and d with percentage errors 1% , 3% , 2% and 4% respectively. If P = a³ b²/√(c) d , then the percentage error in P is:
1
13%
2
14%
3
15%
4
12%
PhysicsLaws of Motion
Q.
A ball of mass 1 kg is dropped from height 40 m. After hitting the floor, it rises to height 10 m. The impulse exerted by the floor on the ball is: (take g = 10 m/s²)
1
21 N·s
2
20 N·s
3
30 N·s
4
10 N·s
PhysicsKinematics
Q.
In a city, bus service runs at speed v km/h at regular interval T minutes. A scooty rider moving at 60 km/h in thesame direction as buses observes a bus every 10 minutes. A rider moving at 60 km/h in the opposite directionobserves a bus every 10/3 minutes. Find T and speed v of the bus.
1
T = 10 min, v = 60 km/h
2
T = 15 min, v = 120 km/h
3
T = 20 min, v = 90 km/h
4
T = 5 min, v = 60 km/h
PhysicsKinetic Theory
Q.
An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 L has an initial gauge pressure of 15 atm and temperature of 27°C . After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, the gauge pressure drops to 11 atm and temperature drops to 17°C . What is the mass of oxygen taken out? (Atmospheric pressure = 1 atm, R = 8.3 J mol ⁻¹ K ⁻¹ , molar mass of O ₂ = 32 g/mol)
1
141 g
2
0.141 g
3
0.44 g
4
44 g
PhysicsCurrent Electricity
Q.
In the circuit shown, L = 2 H, R = 5 Ω . At an instant when current i = 2 A and rate of change of current di/dt = 1 A/s, the potential difference VA - VB is:
1
10 V
2
9 V
3
12 V
4
14 V
PhysicsAtoms and Nuclei
Q.
The magnetic flux through a circular orbit of an electron in hydrogen atom is found to be = nh/e for n = 1, 2, 3,... . The magnetic moment of the electron in the n th orbit is:
1
ne²h/4π m
2
neh/4π m
3
eh/4π m
4
n²eh/4π m
PhysicsGravitation
Q.
The weight of a body on the surface of earth is 48 N. What is its weight at a height equal to R/3 from the surface of earth? (R = radius of earth)
1
27 N
2
36 N
3
32 N
4
24 N
PhysicsDual Nature of Matter
Q.
A photon and an electron both have the same energy E . If λph is the wavelength of photon and λe is the de Broglie wavelength of the electron, then λph/λe is proportional to:
1
√(E)
2
1/√(E)
3
√(E/2mc²)
4
c√(2m/E)
PhysicsOptics
Q.
Unpolarised light is incident on a medium with refractive index √(3) . The angle of incidence for which reflected light is completely plane polarised is:
1
30°
2
45°
3
60°
4
75°
PhysicsRotational Motion
Q.
A uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 5 m leans against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of 60° with it. The foot of the rod rests on a rough floor. What is the friction force on the rod from the floor?
1
50√(3) N
2
100 N
3
100√(3) N
4
200 N
PhysicsLaws of Motion
Q.
Two cars A and B have kinetic energies of 100 J and 225 J respectively. Car A stops in 1000 m and car B stops in 1500 m after the brakes are applied. What is the ratio of the braking forces FA/FB ?
1
3/2
2
2/3
3
1/1
4
4/9
ChemistryElectrochemistry
Q.
The molar conductivity of a weak electrolyte at a given concentration is 90 S cm² mol⁻¹. If the molar conductivity at infinite dilution ^∞ = 400 S cm² mol⁻¹, what is the degree of dissociation α ?
1
0.125
2
0.225
3
0.450
4
0.250
ChemistryChemical Bonding
Q.
Consider the following statements regarding bond order and bond length:
Statement I: A molecule with bond order zero is stable.
Statement II: As bond order increases, bond length also increases.
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
Statement I: A molecule with bond order zero is stable.
Statement II: As bond order increases, bond length also increases.
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
1
Only Statement I
2
Only Statement II
3
Both Statement I and II
4
Neither Statement I nor II
ChemistryAtomic Structure
Q.
The wavelength of radiation emitted when an electron in hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from n=2 to n=1 is λ₁ and that for n=4 to n=2 is λ₂ . The ratio λ₁/λ₂ is:
1
1/4
2
1/2
3
2
4
4
ChemistryCoordination Compounds
Q.
The wavelength of light absorbed for the following complexes is in the order:
A: [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]²⁺ , B: [Co(H₂O)₆]³⁺ , C: [Co(en)₂Cl₂]^+ , D: [Co(NH₃)₅(H₂O)]³⁺
The correct order of increasing wavelength is:
A: [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]²⁺ , B: [Co(H₂O)₆]³⁺ , C: [Co(en)₂Cl₂]^+ , D: [Co(NH₃)₅(H₂O)]³⁺
The correct order of increasing wavelength is:
1
B < A < D < C
2
C < D < A < B
3
D < C < B < A
4
A < B < C < D
ChemistryChemical Kinetics
Q.
For a first order reaction, the rate constant k = 0.03 s⁻¹ . How much time is required for the concentration to decrease from 7.2 mol/L to 0.9 mol/L?
1
46.2 s
2
69.3 s
3
92.4 s
4
23.1 s
ChemistryGeneral Organic Chemistry
Q.
Match List I (purification technique) with List II (principle/application):
A. CHCl₃ + aniline mixture → Simple distillation
B. Crude oil → Fractional distillation
C. Glycerol → Distillation under reduced pressure
D. Aniline + water → Steam distillation
Choose the correct match:
A. CHCl₃ + aniline mixture → Simple distillation
B. Crude oil → Fractional distillation
C. Glycerol → Distillation under reduced pressure
D. Aniline + water → Steam distillation
Choose the correct match:
1
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
2
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
ChemistryMole Concept
Q.
Which of the following contains equal number of atoms as present in 12 g of carbon ( ¹²C )?
A. 212 g of Na₂CO₃
B. 248 g of Na₂O
C. 12 g of H₂
D. 22 g of CO₂
A. 212 g of Na₂CO₃
B. 248 g of Na₂O
C. 12 g of H₂
D. 22 g of CO₂
1
A, B and C only
2
A and C only
3
B, C and D only
4
A, B and D only
ChemistryThermodynamics
Q.
Given: Δ Hf^[BaCl₂(aq)] = -206.9 kcal/mol, Δ Hf^[Cl^-(aq)] = -39.7 kcal/mol. What is the standard enthalpy of formation of Ba²⁺(aq) ?
1
-127.5 kcal/mol
2
-128.5 kcal/mol
3
-246.3 kcal/mol
4
+128.5 kcal/mol
ChemistryRedox Reactions
Q.
What are the oxidation states of oxygen in KO₂ , of oxygen in H₂O₂ , and of sulphur in H₂SO₄ respectively?
1
-1/2 , -1 , +6
2
-1 , -1/2 , +6
3
-1/2 , -1 , -6
4
+1/2 , -1 , +6
ChemistryCoordination Compounds
Q.
Which of the following complexes will show minimum molar conductance in aqueous solution?
1
[Co(NH₃)₃Cl₃] only
2
[Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl only
3
Both [Co(NH₃)₃Cl₃] and [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl
4
[Co(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂ only
ChemistryCoordination Compounds
Q.
Which of the following complexes are paramagnetic?
A: [NiCl₄]²⁻
B: [Ni(CO)₄]
C: [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻
D: [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺
A: [NiCl₄]²⁻
B: [Ni(CO)₄]
C: [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻
D: [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺
1
A and B only
2
B and C only
3
A and D only
4
C and D only
ChemistrySurface Chemistry
Q.
Match the following industrial processes with their catalysts:
A. Haber process ( N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃ )
B. Wacker process (oxidation of ethylene)
C. Wilkinson catalyst (hydrogenation)
D. Ziegler-Natta (polymerisation)
Catalysts: I. Fe, II. PdCl₂, III. [(PPh₃)₃RhCl], IV. TiCl₄/Al(CH₃)₃
A. Haber process ( N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃ )
B. Wacker process (oxidation of ethylene)
C. Wilkinson catalyst (hydrogenation)
D. Ziegler-Natta (polymerisation)
Catalysts: I. Fe, II. PdCl₂, III. [(PPh₃)₃RhCl], IV. TiCl₄/Al(CH₃)₃
1
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
3
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
ChemistryBiomolecules
Q.
Match the vitamins with their deficiency diseases:
A. Vitamin A → I. Scurvy
B. Vitamin B₁₂ → II. Night blindness
C. Vitamin C → III. Pernicious anaemia
D. Vitamin D → IV. Rickets
Choose the correct match:
A. Vitamin A → I. Scurvy
B. Vitamin B₁₂ → II. Night blindness
C. Vitamin C → III. Pernicious anaemia
D. Vitamin D → IV. Rickets
Choose the correct match:
1
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
2
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
3
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
4
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
ChemistrySolid State
Q.
Statement I: Ferromagnetic substances can be permanently magnetised.
Statement II: The ferromagnetic property of substances decreases with an increase in temperature and completely disappears at a temperature called the Neel temperature.
Choose the correct option:
Statement II: The ferromagnetic property of substances decreases with an increase in temperature and completely disappears at a temperature called the Neel temperature.
Choose the correct option:
1
Statement I is true, Statement II is true
2
Statement I is true, Statement II is false
3
Statement I is false, Statement II is true
4
Both statements are false
ChemistryChemical Kinetics
Q.
The half-life of a first order reaction is 1 minute. How much time is required for 99.9% completion of the reaction?
1
3 min
2
5 min
3
10 min
4
7 min
ChemistryAmines
Q.
Arrange the following compounds in order of decreasing basicity:
I. N -ethylethanamine (diethylamine)
II. Ethanamine (ethylamine)
III. N -methylaniline
IV. Benzenamine (aniline)
I. N -ethylethanamine (diethylamine)
II. Ethanamine (ethylamine)
III. N -methylaniline
IV. Benzenamine (aniline)
1
I > II > III > IV
2
II > I > III > IV
3
I > II > IV > III
4
IV > III > II > I
ChemistryQualitative Analysis
Q.
Match the cation groups in qualitative analysis with their reagents/conditions:
A. Group I (Ag⁺, Pb²⁺, Hg₂²⁺)
B. Group II (Cu²⁺, Pb²⁺, Bi³⁺, Cd²⁺, Sn²⁺, As³⁺, Sb³⁺)
C. Group III (Al³⁺, Fe³⁺, Cr³⁺)
D. Group IV (Zn²⁺, Ni²⁺, Co²⁺, Mn²⁺)
Reagents: I. NH₄OH + (NH₄)₂S, II. H₂S in NH₃, III. Dilute HCl, IV. H₂S in HCl
A. Group I (Ag⁺, Pb²⁺, Hg₂²⁺)
B. Group II (Cu²⁺, Pb²⁺, Bi³⁺, Cd²⁺, Sn²⁺, As³⁺, Sb³⁺)
C. Group III (Al³⁺, Fe³⁺, Cr³⁺)
D. Group IV (Zn²⁺, Ni²⁺, Co²⁺, Mn²⁺)
Reagents: I. NH₄OH + (NH₄)₂S, II. H₂S in NH₃, III. Dilute HCl, IV. H₂S in HCl
1
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
2
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
3
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
4
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Chemistryp-Block Elements
Q.
Which of the following statements about H₃PO₄ (orthophosphoric acid) are CORRECT?
A. It is a tribasic acid.
B. It is a strong acid.
C. It has three P-OH bonds.
D. It has no P=O bond.
A. It is a tribasic acid.
B. It is a strong acid.
C. It has three P-OH bonds.
D. It has no P=O bond.
1
A and C only
2
A, B and C
3
A and C only (B is false, D is false)
4
B and D only
ChemistryEquilibrium
Q.
Which of the following statements about chemical equilibrium are CORRECT?
A. At equilibrium, the rate of forward reaction becomes zero.
B. Catalyst changes the equilibrium constant K .
C. At equilibrium, concentration of reactants and products remain constant.
D. A decrease in pressure always shifts the equilibrium towards the side with fewer moles of gas.
E. Addition of inert gas at constant volume does not affect equilibrium.
A. At equilibrium, the rate of forward reaction becomes zero.
B. Catalyst changes the equilibrium constant K .
C. At equilibrium, concentration of reactants and products remain constant.
D. A decrease in pressure always shifts the equilibrium towards the side with fewer moles of gas.
E. Addition of inert gas at constant volume does not affect equilibrium.
1
A and B only
2
C and E only
3
B, C and D
4
A, C and E
ChemistryElectrochemistry
Q.
Statement I: The degree of ionisation of water increases with temperature.
Statement II: The ionic product of water ( Kw ) decreases with increase in temperature.
Select the correct option:
Statement II: The ionic product of water ( Kw ) decreases with increase in temperature.
Select the correct option:
1
Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
2
Both I and II are correct
3
Statement I is incorrect and II is correct
4
Both I and II are incorrect
ChemistrySolutions
Q.
Which of the following solutions will have the highest boiling point?
1
0.1 M glucose
2
0.05 M NaCl
3
0.01 M Na₂SO₄
4
0.1 M MgSO₄
ChemistryEquilibrium
Q.
Statement I: For the reaction N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) 2NH₃(g) , Kp < Kc .
Statement II: Kp = Kc(RT)Δ ng and for this reaction Δ ng = -2 , so Kp = Kc(RT)⁻² < Kc .
Statement II: Kp = Kc(RT)Δ ng and for this reaction Δ ng = -2 , so Kp = Kc(RT)⁻² < Kc .
1
Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
2
Both statements are correct and II is the correct explanation of I
3
Statement I is incorrect and II is correct
4
Both statements are incorrect
ChemistryCarboxylic Acids
Q.
Arrange the following carboxylic acids in decreasing order of acidity:
I. Formic acid (HCOOH)
II. Acetic acid (CH₃COOH)
III. Isobutyric acid ((CH₃)₂CHCOOH)
IV. Trimethylacetic acid / Pivalic acid ((CH₃)₃CCOOH)
I. Formic acid (HCOOH)
II. Acetic acid (CH₃COOH)
III. Isobutyric acid ((CH₃)₂CHCOOH)
IV. Trimethylacetic acid / Pivalic acid ((CH₃)₃CCOOH)
1
I > II > III > IV
2
IV > III > II > I
3
II > I > IV > III
4
III > IV > I > II
ChemistryQualitative Analysis
Q.
Which of the following reactions is NOT used in Lassaigne's test (sodium fusion test) for detection of elements in organic compounds?
1
Na + C + N → NaCN
2
Na + S → Na₂S
3
2CuO + C → 2Cu + CO₂
4
Na + Cl → NaCl
ChemistryBiomolecules
Q.
A sugar X is a reducing sugar, has a molecular formula C₆H₁₂O₆ , and gives a positive Seliwanoff's test. Sugar X is:
1
D-Glucose
2
D-Fructose
3
D-Galactose
4
Sucrose
ChemistryAtomic Structure
Q.
Which of the following could NOT be explained by Dalton's atomic theory?
1
Law of conservation of mass
2
Law of definite proportions
3
Law of multiple proportions
4
Law of gaseous volumes
ChemistryChemical Equilibrium
Q.
For the reaction N₂(g) + O₂(g) 2NO(g) , Δ H = +180.5 kJ/mol. Which conditions will give a higher yield of NO ?
A. High temperature
B. Low temperature
C. Low pressure
D. High pressure
E. Using a catalyst
A. High temperature
B. Low temperature
C. Low pressure
D. High pressure
E. Using a catalyst
1
A, C and E only
2
B and D only
3
A, D and E only
4
A and C only
Chemistryp-Block Elements
Q.
Match the xenon compounds with their hybridisation and geometry:
A. XeO₃ → I. sp³d , linear
B. XeF₂ → II. sp³ , pyramidal
C. XeOF₄ → III. sp³d³ , distorted octahedral
D. XeF₆ → IV. sp³d² , square pyramidal
A. XeO₃ → I. sp³d , linear
B. XeF₂ → II. sp³ , pyramidal
C. XeOF₄ → III. sp³d³ , distorted octahedral
D. XeF₆ → IV. sp³d² , square pyramidal
1
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
2
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
ChemistrySurface Chemistry
Q.
Match the types of colloids with their examples:
A. Sol → I. Cheese
B. Gel → II. Paint
C. Foam → III. Fog
D. Aerosol → IV. Whipped cream
A. Sol → I. Cheese
B. Gel → II. Paint
C. Foam → III. Fog
D. Aerosol → IV. Whipped cream
1
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
2
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
BiologyHuman Reproduction
Q.
The term "menarche" refers to:
1
The cessation of menstrual cycle
2
The onset of menstrual cycle at puberty
3
The phase of maximum fertility in female reproductive cycle
4
The release of secondary oocyte from ovary
BiologyEvolution
Q.
Assertion (A): Natural selection is the mechanism of evolution proposed by Charles Darwin.
Reason (R): Natural selection acts on the heritable variation present in population, and individuals with favourable variations survive and reproduce more successfully.
Choose the correct option:
Reason (R): Natural selection acts on the heritable variation present in population, and individuals with favourable variations survive and reproduce more successfully.
Choose the correct option:
1
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3
A is true but R is false
4
A is false but R is true
BiologyGenetics
Q.
In a dihybrid cross between two heterozygous parents ( AaBb × AaBb ), what is the phenotypic ratio observed in the offspring, assuming complete dominance and independent assortment?
1
1:2:1
2
3:1
3
9:3:3:1
4
1:1:1:1
BiologyCell Division
Q.
Consider the following statements about meiosis:
Statement I: Meiosis results in the formation of four haploid cells from one diploid cell.
Statement II: Crossing over occurs during pachytene of prophase I of meiosis.
Statement I: Meiosis results in the formation of four haploid cells from one diploid cell.
Statement II: Crossing over occurs during pachytene of prophase I of meiosis.
1
Only Statement I is correct
2
Only Statement II is correct
3
Both Statements I and II are correct
4
Both Statements I and II are incorrect
BiologyGenetics
Q.
Which of the following statements correctly explains Mendel's Law of Segregation?
1
Genes for different traits assort independently during gamete formation
2
During gamete formation, alleles for each gene separate so that each gamete carries only one allele for each gene
3
The two alleles of a gene are always identical in a homozygous condition
4
Dominant alleles always mask the expression of recessive alleles
BiologyPlant Kingdom
Q.
In angiosperms, how many divisions (meiotic + mitotic) are required to produce one mature male gametophyte (pollen grain with 3 cells)?
1
1 meiosis + 1 mitosis
2
1 meiosis + 2 mitosis
3
2 meiosis + 1 mitosis
4
1 meiosis + 3 mitosis
BiologyMolecular Biology
Q.
Which of the following statements about translation is INCORRECT?
1
mRNA is read in the 5' to 3' direction
2
The ribosome moves along mRNA in the 3' to 5' direction
3
The first amino acid corresponds to the N-terminal end of the polypeptide
4
Peptide bond formation occurs at the peptidyl transferase centre of the large ribosomal subunit
BiologyBiodiversity
Q.
Which of the following statements about biodiversity hotspots are CORRECT?
A. Hotspots are areas with extremely high species richness and endemism.
B. They cover about 2.5% of Earth's land but contain more than 50% of all endemic plant species.
C. India has no biodiversity hotspot.
D. The Western Ghats is an example of a biodiversity hotspot in India.
A. Hotspots are areas with extremely high species richness and endemism.
B. They cover about 2.5% of Earth's land but contain more than 50% of all endemic plant species.
C. India has no biodiversity hotspot.
D. The Western Ghats is an example of a biodiversity hotspot in India.
1
A and B only
2
A, B and D only
3
C and D only
4
B and C only
BiologyEcology and Evolution
Q.
Assertion (A): Species with a broad geographical range generally have better chances of survival than species with narrow ranges.
Reason (R): The ability to colonise and adapt to new areas is positively correlated with the size of the geographical range.
Reason (R): The ability to colonise and adapt to new areas is positively correlated with the size of the geographical range.
1
Both A and R true, R explains A
2
Both A and R true, R does not explain A
3
A is true but R is false
4
A is false but R is true
BiologyReproduction
Q.
Statement I: Vegetative propagation in plants is always a form of asexual reproduction.
Statement II: Organisms reproducing by asexual means always produce genetically identical offspring.
Statement II: Organisms reproducing by asexual means always produce genetically identical offspring.
1
Both I and II are correct
2
Only Statement I is correct
3
Only Statement II is correct
4
Both I and II are incorrect
BiologyDiversity in Living World
Q.
Which of the following is an example of asexual reproduction?
1
Formation of seeds in flowering plants
2
Fusion of gametes in frog
3
Regeneration in Planaria
4
Formation of embryo from fertilised egg in humans
BiologyPlant Kingdom / Morphology
Q.
Match the following reproductive parts of a flower with their correct functions:
A. Stigma → I. Produces pollen grains
B. Anther → II. Connects stigma to ovary
C. Style → III. Receives pollen grains
D. Ovary → IV. Contains ovules, develops into fruit
A. Stigma → I. Produces pollen grains
B. Anther → II. Connects stigma to ovary
C. Style → III. Receives pollen grains
D. Ovary → IV. Contains ovules, develops into fruit
1
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
2
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
4
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
BiologyReproduction
Q.
Which of the following are features of sexual reproduction?
A. Always requires two organisms
B. Involves fusion of gametes
C. Produces offspring with genetic variation
D. Involves meiosis at some point
A. Always requires two organisms
B. Involves fusion of gametes
C. Produces offspring with genetic variation
D. Involves meiosis at some point
1
A, B and C only
2
B, C and D only
3
A and D only
4
All A, B, C and D
BiologyGenetics
Q.
Gregor Mendel conducted his classical experiments on inheritance using which plant?
1
Pisum sativum (Garden pea)
2
Datura stramonium
3
Mirabilis jalapa (Four o'clock)
4
Antirrhinum majus (Snapdragon)
BiologyMolecular Biology
Q.
Who proposed that genetic code should be a triplet code (three nucleotides coding for one amino acid)?
1
Francis Crick
2
George Gamow
3
Marshall Nirenberg
4
Har Gobind Khorana
BiologyMolecular Biology
Q.
Statement I: DNA replication is semi-conservative - each daughter DNA has one parental strand and one newly synthesised strand.
Statement II: Meselson and Stahl experiment used radioactive labelling with 32P to prove semi-conservative replication.
Statement II: Meselson and Stahl experiment used radioactive labelling with 32P to prove semi-conservative replication.
1
Both I and II are correct
2
Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
3
Statement I is incorrect and II is correct
4
Both I and II are incorrect
BiologyEvolution
Q.
The evolution of similar functional structures in unrelated organisms due to similar environmental pressures is called:
1
Divergent evolution
2
Adaptive radiation
3
Convergent evolution
4
Parallel evolution
BiologyAnimal Kingdom / Ecology
Q.
Which of the following is an example of an ectoparasite?
1
Ascaris lumbricoides
2
Plasmodium falciparum
3
Pediculus humanus (head louse)
4
Taenia solium (tapeworm)